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Daily Current Affairs Prelims Quiz 10-04-2021 - (Online Prelims Test)

1) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)

  1. It was founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, independent India’s first Education Minister.
  2. It works under the administrative control of Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a
  • The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) is celebrating its 71st Foundation Day recently. 

Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)

  • It was founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, independent India’s first Education Minister.
  • ICCR is a society registered in the year 1957 under Society Registration Act 1860.
  • The organization was under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education and Youth Affairs till 1970.
  • Since its mandate involved interaction with foreign entities, ICCR was in 1970 transferred from Ministry of Human Resource Development to the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
  • Since then it has been functioning as an autonomous body under the administrative control of MEA.

2) SARTHAQ Initiative was launched recently by which of the following ministries?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a
  • Union Education Ministry has recently launched the SARTHAQ initiative.
  • The initiative will help in the implementation of National Education Policy in the country.
  • The students and teachers holistic advancement through quality education, SARTHAQ has been initiated as a part of the Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.
  • The initiative will pave the way for the children and youths to meet the diverse national and global challenges.
  • It will also help them to imbibe 21st century skills, indian tradition, culture and value system as envisioned in National Education Policy.

3) With respect to UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following statements:

  1. It is an International treaty adopted and signed in 1982.
  2. United States of America (USA) has both signed and ratified the convention.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

  • It is also called the Law of the Sea Convention or the Law of the Sea treaty.
  • It is an international agreement that resulted from the third United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS III), which took place between 1973 and 1982.
  • The Law of the Sea Convention defines the rights and responsibilities of nations with respect to their use of the world's oceans, establishing guidelines for businesses, the environment, and the management of marine natural resources.
  • USA has signed the Agreement but has not ratified it.

4) Consider the following statements

  1. Article 25 of Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality and health.
  2. Religious faith is a part of the fundamental Right to Privacy.

 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c
  • The Supreme Court has recently said that, people are free to choose their own religion.
  • Article 25 of Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality and health.
  • The court also said that every person is the final judge of their own choice of religion or who their life partner should be.
  • Courts cannot sit in judgment of a person’s choice of religion or life partner.
  • Religious faith is a part of the fundamental right to privacy. 

5) With respect to India’s Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, consider the following statements:

  1. Exclusive Economic Zone is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters, and the limit of such zone is two hundred nautical miles from the baseline.
  2. Under the law, all foreign ships including warships shall enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial waters of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

India’s Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976

  • EEZ of India is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters, and the limit of such zone is two hundred nautical miles from the baseline.
  • India’s limit of the territorial waters is the line every point of which is at a distance of twelve nautical miles from the nearest point of the appropriate baseline.
  • Under the 1976 law, all foreign ships (other than warships including sub-marines and other underwater vehicles) shall enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial waters, innocent passage being one that is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of India.

6) Consider the following statements with respect to Madhukranti Portal

  1. It is an initiative of Khadi Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and TRIFED.
  2. It is being developed for online registration to achieve traceability source of Honey and other beehive products on a digital platform.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Madhukranti Portal

  • It is an initiative of National Bee Board (NBB), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare under National Beekeeping & Honey Mission (NBHM).
  • The technical and banking partner for development of this digital platform is Indian Bank.
  • It is aimed at creating a database of all stakeholders involved in Honey and other hive products’ production, sales and marketing chain.
  • The online registration/ traceability system for source of Honey & other beehive products will help in checking the quality & source of adulteration of honey.
  • The system will also enable consumers/public to know the source of honey and assure quality of the products.
  • KVIC Honey mission provides training and 10 bee boxes with live colonies to beneficiaries including farmers, beekeepers and unemployed youth.

7) Consider the following statements with respect to International Quiet Ocean Experiment (IQOE)

  1. It uses hydrophones to record low-frequency signals from whales and other marine animals, as well as those emanated by human activities.
  2. International Maritime Organization (IMO) and IUCN are implementing the project and funded by UN- Environment Program.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

International Quiet Ocean Experiment (IQOE)

  • It is an international scientific program to promote research, observations, and modelling to improve understanding of ocean soundscapes and effects of sound on marine organisms.
  • The IQOE Science Plan has been reviewed and approved by the Scientific Committee on Oceanic Research (SCOR) and the Partnership for Observation of the Global Oceans (POGO).
  • SCOR and POGO staff members will assist project scientists with implementation.
  • The International Quiet Ocean Experiment (IQOE) has identified a network of over 200 non-military hydrophones (underwater microphones) in oceans across the world.
  • These hydrophones that pick up even faraway low-frequency signals have recorded sounds from whales and other marine animals, as well as those emanated by human activities.
  • This will help them understand how the soundscape of the oceans is changing and how it impacts marine life.
  • The three broad components of oceanic acoustics are
  1. Geophony - Sounds created by non-biological natural events like earthquakes, waves and bubbling.
  2. Biophony - Sounds created by the ocean’s living creatures.
  3. Anthrophony – sounds created by human activities.

8) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Tribunals

  1. It is a quasi-judicial institution that is set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes.
  2. Santhanam Committee recommendations led to the introduction of tribunals in India.
  3. Constitutional provisions contemplate the establishment of tribunals for public service matters only and not for certain other matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Tribunals

  • It is a quasi-judicial institution that is set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes.
  • It performs a number of functions like adjudicating disputes, determining rights between contesting parties, making an administrative decision, reviewing an existing administrative decision and so forth.
  • A Tribunal, generally, is any person or institution having an authority to judge, adjudicate on, or to determine claims or disputes – whether or not it is called a tribunal in its title.
  • Tribunals were not originally a part of the Constitution.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 introduced provision for tribunals in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • The Amendment introduced Part XIV-A to the Constitution, which deals with ‘Tribunals’ and contains two articles:
    1. Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals.
    2. Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters.
  • Santhanam Committee recommendations led to the establishment of Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)

Constitutional provisions of Tribunals

  • Articles 323 A and 323 B differ in the following three aspects:
  1. While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals for certain other matters (mentioned above).
  2. While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative competence.
  3. Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for each state or two or more states may be established. There is no question of the hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
  • Article 262: The Indian Constitution provides a role for the Central government in adjudicating conflicts surrounding inter-state rivers that arise among the state/regional governments.

9) Consider the following statements with respect to Clean Ganga Fund (CGF)

  1. It is set up with voluntary contributions from residents of the country, NRIs and Person of Indian Origin (PIO).
  2. It is set up as a trust under the Indian Trusts Act and managed by a Trust to be headed by Finance Minister.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Clean Ganga Fund (CGF)

  • The secretariat of the Trust to manage CGF is set up in Ministry of Jal Shakti under the Mission Director, Clean Ganga.
  • The proposal to set up CGF was to attract private contributions globally for increasing people's participation in this massive task.
  • The domestic donors to the Fund shall be eligible for tax benefits as applicable in the case of the Swachh Bharat Kosh.
  • CGF will have the objective of contributing to the national effort of improving the cleanliness of the river Ganga with the contributions received from the residents of the country, NRIs/ PIO and others.
  • Recently, the Ministry of Jal Shakti has informed that as on March 2021, funds of Rs 453 crore have been deposited in the Clean Ganga Fund

10) Consider the following statements with respect to Government Securities Acquisition Programme (G-SAP)

  1. Under this the RBI will purchase government securities worth Rs 1 lakh crore in the first quarter of FY22.
  2. It will help market participants to bid better in scheduled auctions and reduce volatility in bond prices.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Government Securities Acquisition Programme (G-SAP)

  • Recently, the governor of RBI has announced a new programme called Government Securities Acquisition Programme (G-SAP).
  • It will reiterate the RBI’s commitment to maintain the current accommodative policy stance until the economy is back on track.
  • It will provide certainty to the bond market participants with regard to RBI’s commitment of support to the bond market in FY22.
  • The market participants have always wanted to know the RBI’s Open Market Operations (OMO) purchase calendar, and the RBI has now provided that to the market through G-SAP.
  • It will help reduce the spread between the repo rate and the 10-year government bond yield which will help to reduce the aggregate cost of borrowing for the Centre and states in FY22.

Open Market Operation

  • Open Market Operations is the simultaneous sale and purchase of government securities and treasury bills by RBI.
  • The objective of OMO is to regulate the money supply in the economy.
  • RBI carries out the OMO through commercial banks and does not directly deal with the public.
  • OMO is one of the quantitative tools that RBI uses to smoothen the liquidity conditions through the year and minimize its impact on the interest rate and inflation rate levels.
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