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Daily Current Affairs Prelims Quiz 27-07-2022 - (Online Prelims Test)

1) Consider the following pairs:

Indigenous tribal games           States

  1. Mallakhamb                       Maharashtra
  2. Silambam                          Tamil Nadu
  3. Kalaripayattu                     Kerala
  4. Gatka                                 Gujarat
  5. Thang Ta                           Manipur
  6. Yogasana                          Uttar Pradesh

Which of the above pairs are matched correctly?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Indigenous tribal games and their states

  • Mallakhamb - Maharashtra
  • Silambam - Tamil Nadu
  • Kalaripayattu - Kerala
  • Gatka - Punjab
  • Thang Ta - Manipur
  • Yogasana - Gujarat

2) Consider the following statements:

  1. Rule 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Rajya Sabha allows the chairman to suspend the Members.
  2. Rule 256 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha allows the speaker to suspend the Members.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Suspension of MPs

Lok Sabha

  • Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business says: The Speaker, if he is of the opinion that the conduct of any Member is grossly disorderly, may direct such Member to withdraw immediately from the House, and any Member so ordered to withdraw shall do so forthwith and shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
  • To deal with more recalcitrant Members, the Speaker make takes recourse to Rules 374 and 374A.
  • Rule 374 says: (1) The Speaker may, if deems it necessary, name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by persistently and willfully obstructing the business thereof.
  • (2) If a Member is so named by the Speaker, the Speaker shall, on a motion being made forthwith put the question that the Member (naming such Member) be suspended from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session: Provided that the House may, at any time, on a motion being made, resolve that such suspension be terminated.
  • (3) A member suspended under this rule shall forthwith withdraw from the precincts of the House.
  • Rule 374A was incorporated into the Rule Book on December 5, 2001. The intention was to skirt around the necessity of moving and adopting a motion for suspension.
  • According to Rule 374A: (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in rules 373 and 374, in the event of grave disorder occasioned by a Member coming into the well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House persistently and willfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise, such Member shall, on being named by the Speaker, stand automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less: Provided that the House may, at any time, on a motion being made, resolve that such suspension be terminated.
  • (2) On the Speaker announcing the suspension under this rule, the Member shall forthwith withdraw from the precincts of the House.

Rajya Sabha

  • Like the Speaker in Lok Sabha, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered under Rule Number 255 of its Rule Book to “direct any Member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to withdraw immediately” from the House.
  • Under Rule 256, the Chairman may “name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and willfully obstructing” business.
  • In such a situation, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
  • The House may, by another motion, terminate the suspension.

3) Consider the following statements:

  1. The framework for the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is meant to serve the private and non-profit sectors by providing greater capital to them.
  2. Under the framework, corporate foundations, and political and religious organizations are identified as social enterprises.
  3. The framework is the brainchild of the department of revenue, the Ministry of finance.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

The framework for the Social Stock Exchange (SSE)

  • The framework has been notified by SEBI and has been developed on the basis of the recommendations of a working group and technical group constituted by the regulator.
  • The social stock exchange is a novel concept in India and such a course is meant to serve the private and non-profit sectors by providing greater capital to them.
  • Under the new rules, SSE will be a separate segment of the existing stock exchanges.
  • Social enterprises (SEs) eligible to participate in the SSE will be entities, non-profit organizations (NPOs), and for-profit social enterprises, having social intent and impact as their primary goal.
  • Also, such an intent should be demonstrated through its focus on eligible social objectives for the underserved or less privileged populations or regions.
  • Corporate foundations, political or religious organizations or activities, professional or trade associations, and infrastructure, and housing companies, except affordable housing, will not be eligible to be identified as a social enterprise.
  • Concerning fundraising, SEBI said eligible NPOs can raise funds through zero-coupon zero principal bonds and mutual funds, while for-profit social enterprises can mobilize capital through the issuance of equity shares on the main board, SME platform, or equity shares issued to an alternative investment fund, including social impact fund.

4) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Energy Conservation Act, 2001, empowers the Centre to specify norms and standards of energy efficiency for appliances, with a connected load over 100 kilo Watts (kW).
  2. The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022, defines the minimum share of renewable energy to be consumed by industrial units or any establishment.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

The Energy Conservation Act

  • The Energy Conservation Act, 2001, governs the energy domain in India.
  • The Act empowers the Centre to specify norms and standards of energy efficiency for appliances, industrial equipment and buildings with a connected load over 100 kilo Watts (kW) or a contractual demand of more than 15 kilovolt-amperes (kVA).
  • The Act established the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
  • The 2010 amendment extended the tenure of the Director General of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency from three to five years.
  • This Bureau can specify qualifications required for energy auditors who monitor and review the power consumption of various industries.
  • The Bureau, which falls under the Central government, appoints its own officers and staff.
  • According to the Act, the Centre can issue energy savings certificates to those industries which consume less than their maximum allotted energy.
  • However, this certificate can be sold to customers who consume higher than their maximum allowed energy threshold – providing a framework for energy trading.
  • The Act allows the Centre to prohibit the manufacture, sale, purchase or import of any particular equipment unless it conforms to specified norms issued six months/ one year before.
  • In case of any violations under this Act, each offence shall attract a penalty of Rs. ten lakhs with an additional penalty of Rs. 10,000 for each day the offence continues.
  • Consumers who utilize excess energy will be penalized according to their excess consumption.
  • Any appeals against any such order passed by the Central or state government will be heard by the appellate tribunal already established under the Electricity Act, 2003.

Amendment Bill, 2022

  • The main objective of these proposed amendments is to reduce India’s power consumption via fossil fuels and thereby minimize the nation’s carbon footprint.
  • The Centre aims to develop India’s Carbon market and boost the adoption of clean technology.
  • India aims to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), as mentioned in the Paris Climate Agreement, before its 2030 target date.
  • The bill also consists of provisions such as:
    • Defining the minimum share of renewable energy to be consumed by industrial units or any establishment.
    • This consumption may be done directly from a renewable energy source or indirectly via the power grid.
    • Incentivizing efforts to use clean energy by issuing carbon-saving certificates
    • Strengthening institutions set up originally under the Act, such as the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
    • Facilitating the promotion of green Hydrogen as an alternative to the fossil fuels used by industries
    • Considering additional incentives like carbon credits for the use of clean energy to lure the private sector to climate action.
    • Including larger residential buildings under energy conservation standards to promote sustainable habitats.
    • Currently, only large industries and their buildings come under the ambit of the Act.

5) Consider the following pairs

           Ramsar Sites                                          States

  1. Karikili Bird Sanctuary                             Kerala
  2. Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest         Tamil Nadu
  3. Sakhya Sagar                                          Gujarat
  4. Pala Wetland                                           Odisha

How many of the above pairs are matched correctly?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Ramsar Sites

  • India has added five more Ramsar sites or wetlands that are of international importance, bringing the number of such sites to 54.
  • The newly added sites are:
    • Karikili Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu
    • Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest – Tamil Nadu
    • Pichavaram Mangrove – Tamil Nadu
    • Sakhya Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
    • Pala Wetland - Mizoram
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