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Daily Current Affairs Prelims Quiz 23-11-2022 (Online Prelims Test)

1) Consider the following statements with respect to the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India:

  1. The power, appointment and duties of the chief election commissioner are mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution.
  2. The tenure of the chief election commissioner of India is for 6 years or up to the age of 62 years.
  3. The CEC cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Chief Election Commissioner of India

  • The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on the 25th January 1950.
  • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
  • The powers, appointment and duties related to the election commission is mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution (Article 324 to Article 329) and the Representation of People Act.
  • Composition – Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner.
  • It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
  • For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990.
  • Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed.
  • The concept of a multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision making power by majority vote.
  • Appointment, Tenure – The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
  • They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  • The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.
  • Removal of Election Commissioner – They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.
  • The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court.

2) How is Narco Test different from the Polygraph Test?

  1. The narco test alters the consciousness of the person and the polygraph test relies on the person’s physiological marks to determine the truth.
  2. The polygraph test is mandatory in all murder cases whereas narco test is not mandatory in all cases.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Polygraph Test

  • A polygraph test is based on the assumption that physiological responses (heartbeat, changes in breathing, sweating, etc.) triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise.
  • Instruments like cardio-cuffs or sensitive electrodes are attached to the person, and variables such as blood pressure, pulse, blood flow, etc., are measured as questions are put to them.
  • A numerical value is assigned to each response to conclude whether the person is telling the truth, is deceiving, or is uncertain.
  • While the narco test uses the method of narcotics to alter the consciousness of the person being questioned, the polygraph test relies on the person’s physiological marks to determine the truth.
  • None of these methods have been scientifically proven to have a 100% success rate.
  • The Supreme Court ruled in the Selvi vs State of Karnataka & Anr case (2010) that no lie detector tests should be administered without the accused’s consent.
  • Volunteers must also have access to a lawyer and have the physical, emotional, and legal implications of the test explained to them by police and the lawyer.
  • The results of the tests cannot be considered “confessions," but any information or material discovered as a result of such a voluntarily administered test can be admitted as evidence.
  • It is not mandatory for polygraph test in murder cases.
  • Under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution, the defendant has the right against self-incrimination, but witnesses are not given the same right.
  • A defendant must be informed of their rights before making any statements that may incriminate them.
  • Defendants must not be compelled to give any statements.

3) Consider the following statements with respect to the Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):

  1. They are well defined areas that are unique and comprise of ecologically fragile ecosystems.
  2. The State Government in consultation with local bodies notifies the Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
  3. Arittapatti village in Tamil Nadu is the first biodiversity heritage site in India.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS)

  • The State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify in the official gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
  • BHS are well defined areas that are unique and comprise of ecologically fragile ecosystems such as terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and marine having rich biodiversity.
  • Ameenpur Lake was declared as the first Biodiversity Heritage Site in the country in 2017.
  • Arittapatti village in Tamil Nadu is the first biodiversity heritage site in the state.

Criteria for identification of BHS

  • Areas having any of the following characteristics may qualify for inclusion as BHS:
    1. Areas that contain a mosaic of natural, semi-natural, and manmade habitats, which together contain a significant diversity of life forms.
    2. Areas that contain significant domesticated biodiversity component and/or representative agro-ecosystems with ongoing agricultural practices that sustain this diversity.
    3. Areas that are significant from a biodiversity point of view as also are important cultural spaces such as sacred groves/trees and sites, or other large community conserved areas.
    4. Areas including very small ones that offer refuge or corridors for threatened and endemic fauna and flora, such as community conserved areas or urban greens and wetlands.

4) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Suicide Prevention Strategy:

  1. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the World Mental Health Forum.
  2. The strategy aims to achieve reduction in suicide mortality by 10% by the year 2030.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

National Suicide Prevention Strategy

  • It was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  • It is the first of its kind in the country, with time-bound action plans and multi-sectoral collaborations to achieve reduction in suicide mortality by 10% by 2030.
  • The strategy broadly seeks to establish effective surveillance mechanisms for suicide within the 3 three years.
  • It also aims to establish psychiatric outpatient departments that will provide suicide prevention services through the District Mental Health Programme in all districts within the next 5 years.
  • It aims to integrate a mental well-being curriculum in all educational institutions within the next 8 years.
  • It envisages developing guidelines for responsible media reporting of suicides, and restricting access to means of suicide.

5) Consider the following statements with respect to the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI):

  1. It is published by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  2. It ranks countries based on 4 parameters such as GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
  3. India is ranked the best among the G20 countries on its climate change performance.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)

  • It is published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany.
  • The CCPI is an instrument to enable transparency in national and international climate politics.
  • The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
  • According to the CCPI, 2023, India has been ranked amongst top 5 countries in the world, and the best among the G20 countries, based on its Climate Change performance.
  • The latest report of CCPI, released at COP 27 shows Denmark, Sweden, Chile and Morocco as the only four small countries that were ranked above India as 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th respectively.
  • The 1st, 2nd & 3rd ranks were not awarded to any country and in effect, India’s rank is the best amongst all large economies.
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