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CA Revision Module - Test 25 (January 2024)

1. Consider the following statements regarding Tsunami waves.

  1. Volcanic eruption has generated about 80% of all tsunami events recorded globally.
  2. The wavelength is a prime factor which distinguishes tsunamis from wind waves.
  3. When the sea depth decreases, the wavelength of tsunami wave decreases and it caused the increase in the height of waves.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Tsunami

Tsunami waves hit several parts of Japan’s coastal areas and urgent evacuation warnings were issued after a 7.6-magnitude earthquake shook the country’s north-central region.

  • Tsunami– A Japanese word meaning harbour wave. Tsu – harbour; nami - wave.
  • It is a series of giant ocean waves caused by earthquakes or volcanic eruptions under the ocean.

Tsunami types

  • Types of TsunamiWind wave vs Tsunami wave – The wavelength is a factor which distinguishes tsunamis from wind waves, a tsunami wavelength can be more than 200 km long which is considerably longer than a wind wave wavelength.

Ocean floor - tsunami

  • Lifetime of a tsunami – It can be divided into 3 stages namely generation, propagation, and run-up.
  • The power of a tsunami – It is highly dependent on 2 factors.
    • The tide – At high tide the tsunami will be able to do much more damage than at low tide.
    • Seafloor morphology – It alters the height by changing the ratio between their wavelength and wave height.
  • In general, this ratio decreases as the wave travels into shallower water, causing the tsunami to grow in size. 
  • Sea depth – As the sea depth decreases, the wavelength of tsunami wave decreases and thus the height increases.
  • Size – It is also influenced by the topography of the coastline.
  • Numbers – There may be more than one wave and the succeeding one may be larger than the one before.

2. Consider the following pairs.

 

Important Judgments

Related to

1

Joseph Shine v Union

of India

Demonetisation of currency notes of Rs. 500 and Rs.1000 denominations

2

Vivek Narayan

Sharma v. Union of

India

Armed forces can take action against their officers for adulterous acts.

3

Anoop Baranwal v.

Union of India

Appointments of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs)

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Key Supreme Court Judgments in 2023

The Supreme Court has delivered several landmark judgments in 2023.

Case

Judgement

Vivek Narayan Sharma v. Union of India

Upheld the decision taken by the Union Government to demonetise currency notes of Rs. 500 and Rs.1000 denominations and held that it satisfies the test of proportionality.

Joseph Shine v Union of India

Armed forces can take action against their officers for adulterous acts.

Joseph Shine v Union of India2018 that decriminalised adultery does not prevent court martial proceedings initiated against members of the armed forces for adulterous conduct.

Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India

The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) will be appointed by the President on the advice of a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in the Lok Sabha or the leader of the single largest party in opposition.

Subhash Desai versus Principal Secretary, Governor of Maharashtra and Ors

Opened the doors for disqualification proceedings against Maharashtra Chief Minister Eknath Shinde for defection from the Shiv Sena party, and held that the then-Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari “erred” in calling for a trust vote which triggered the fall of the Uddhav Thackeray-led government in mid-2022.

Animal Welfare Board v. Union Of India

Upheld the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017, saying that the traditional bull-taming sport ‘Jallikattu’ has been going on in Tamil Nadu for the last century.

Revanasiddappa v. Mallikarjun

A child born of a void or voidable marriage can inherit the parent’s share in a joint Hindu family property governed by the Mitakshara law.  However, such a child would not be entitled to rights in or to the property of any other person in the family.

X v. Union of India

Declined a married woman’s plea to medically terminate her 26-week pregnancy, and it opposed to order doctors to stop the heartbeat of the foetus when medical reports say she will give birth to a viable baby.

Supriyo v. Union of India

Non-heterosexual couples cannot claim an unqualified right to marry.

Temple of Healing v. Union of India

Issued directions to expedite adoption processes and directed States to conduct drives to identify adoptable children and establish adoption agencies.

Re Article 370 of the Constitution of India

Unanimously upheld the power of the President to abrogate Article 370 via an executive order in August 2019, leading to the reorganisation of the State of Jammu and Kashmir into 2 Union Territories and denuding its special privileges under the Constitution.

Ritu Chhabaria v.Union of India

Central agencies cannot deny accused persons their right to default bail by filing multiple supplementary chargesheets and seeking renewed custody.

Later, the Supreme Court, in a rather unusual order, directed lower courts to decide pending default bail applications without relying on its own judgment.

Article 141 of the Constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within India.

Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan

The Supreme Court can exercise its plenary power to do ‘complete justice’ under Article 142(1) of the Constitution to dissolve a marriage on the ground that it had broken down irretrievably.

3. Consider the following statements with respect to Defection.

  1. The presiding officer has to decide a defection case within 6 months of reporting.
  2. The decision of the presiding officer in cases of defection cannot be challenged in any court.
  3. The President is empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the 10th schedule of Indian Constitution.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Tenth Schedule

Maharashtra Speaker’s interpretation of the anti-defection law could be challenged in the Supreme Court.

  • Anti-defection law – It punishes individual MPs/MLAs for leaving one party for another.
  • It was added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act as the Tenth Schedule in 1985.
  • It was a response to the toppling of multiple state governments by party-hopping MLAs after the general elections of 1967.
  • Deciding authority – The Presiding Officer of the House is empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the 10th schedule.
  • Role of judiciary – The decision can be challenged before the higher judiciary.

Tenth Schedule

Maharashtra Speaker’s interpretation of the anti-defection law could be challenged in the Supreme Court.

  • Anti-defection law – It punishes individual MPs/MLAs for leaving one party for another.
  • It was added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act as the Tenth Schedule in 1985.
  • It was a response to the toppling of multiple state governments by party-hopping MLAs after the general elections of 1967.
  • Deciding authority – The Presiding Officer of the House is empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the 10th schedule.
  • Role of judiciary – The decision can be challenged before the higher judiciary.

Type

Defection

Member of political party

  • Voluntarily giving up the membership of political party (or)

Voting or abstain from voting in that House contrary to the direction issued by the political party

Independent candidate

If an MP/MLA who has been elected as an independent candidate joins a political party later

Nominated member

If nominated legislators joins a political party after 6 months of being appointed to the House

Exemptions

  • The law allows a group of two-third MP/MLAs to join (merger) another political party without inviting the penalty for defection.
  • If a person is elected as the Speaker of Lok Sabha or the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, then he could resign from his party and re-join the party once he demits the post.
  • 91st Amendment Act, 2005 deleted the exemption from disqualification in case of split by 1/3rd members of legislature.
  • Concerns – It does not provide a time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
  • It only punishes legislators and not political parties who are at the heart of the politics have no liability under the law.
  • The exception provision for merger is based on the number of members rather than the reason behind the defection.
  • The law focuses on voluntary defection and remain silent about expulsion of member from the party.
    • If expelled then such member would be an independent in the House with the option of joining another party.
  • Concerns – It does not provide a time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
  • It only punishes legislators and not political parties who are at the heart of the politics have no liability under the law.
  • The exception provision for merger is based on the number of members rather than the reason behind the defection.
  • The law focuses on voluntary defection and remain silent about expulsion of member from the party.
    • If expelled then such member would be an independent in the House with the option of joining another party.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2023.

  1. It is a nationwide citizen-led annual household survey that provides a snapshot of the status of children’s schooling and learning.
  2. It was conducted by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2023

The Annual Status of Education Report 2023 has been published recently by Pratham, a civil society organisation.

  • It is a nationwide citizen-led household survey that provides a snapshot of the status of children’s schooling and learning in rural India.
  • Conducted byPratham, a non-governmental organisation.
  • Launched – 2005
  • Published – Annually until 2014, but became alternate year cycle since 2016.
    • It collects information about enrolment in pre-school and school for children in the age group of 3 to 16.
    • It assesses children aged 5 to 16 one-on-ones to understand their foundational reading and arithmetic abilities.
  • ASER, 2017 – For the first time it focused on the youth aged 14 to 18 in 28 districts of the country.
  • ASER 2023 – It revisits 14-18 age group on collecting data and information about new domain that have emerged as important in the post pandemic world.
  • It was conducted in 28 districts across 26 states in India.
  • 2023 findings – Most of the people in this age group were enrolled in the Arts/Humanities streams.
  • Females are less likely to be enrolled in the Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) stream (28.1%) than males (36.3%).
  • Only 5.6% of surveyed youth report taking vocational training or other related courses currently.
  • About 25% still cannot read a Class II level text fluently in their regional language.
  • More than half struggle with division (3 digit by 1 digit) problems.
  • A little over half can read sentences in English (57.3%).
  • Females can do better than males in reading a Class II level text in their regional language.
  • Males are more than twice as likely to have their own smartphone as females.
  • Across all digital tasks, such as finding and sharing videos, searching the internet, setting an alarm, and using Google maps, boys outperformed girls.
  • Close to 90% of all youth have a smartphone in the household and kn0w how to use it.
  • About two-thirds of the youth reported using smartphones for educational purposes, such as watching online videos related to studies, solving doubts or exchanging notes.
  • There is a huge skill deficit among adolescents, many of them only a few years away from entering the job market.

5. Consider the following with respect to Geographical Indication (GI) Tag:

  1. Every State in India has at least one GI tag.
  2. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of GI tags in India.
  3. Among varied categories of GI tag, Handicrafts tops the list with higher number of products.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Status of GI tag in India

17 products from across 6 States/Union Territories got the geographical Indications (GI) tag recently.

  • GI tag – A sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess unique qualities due to that origin.
  • Ownership – Any trader's body, association, or organization can apply for a GI tag.
  • Conditions – Uniqueness of the item with historical records proof and a complete breakdown of how the product is made.
  • Raw materials – They do not necessarily have to come from that region, unless it is an agricultural tag.
    • For instance, the mulberry silk used in Kancheepuram sarees comes from Karnataka, and the gold zari from Surat.
  • StatusEvery State in India has at least 1 GI tag.
  • Tamil Nadu has the highest number of GI-tags.
  • Variety of products – There are 34 classes of products that can get GI tags ranging from chemicals and paint to foodstuffs, handicrafts, musical instruments, and even firearms and locomotives.
  • 5 Major Categories (Highest to Lowest in tag) – Handicrafts-Agriculture-Foodstuff-Manufactured-Natural.

Status of GI tag in India

 

6. Identify the correct sequence of the proposed trading route with respect to ‘Trilateral Transit and Trade Agreement’ between India, Afghanistan and Iran.

  1. Kandla
  2. Gwadar Port
  3. Chabahar port
  4. Zahedan
  5. Kabul
  6. Zaranj

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Chabahar Port

India and Iran are set to hold talks to establish "long-term cooperation framework" on Chabahar port.

  • Chabahar Port – It is Iran’s first Deepwater port and sits at the mouth of the Gulf of Oman.
  • It is Iran's only oceanic port situated in Sistan and Baluchistan Province, on the Makran coast.
  • 2 main ports – Shahid Kalantari and Shahid Beheshti.
  • Chabahar portChabahar port project – Signed in 2003 between India and Iran.
  • Trilateral Transit and Trade Agreement – Signed in 2016 between India, Afghanistan and Iran.
    • Kabul-Zaranj-Zahedan-Chabahar port-Kandla

(or)

    •  Kandla-Chabahar port-Zahedan-Zaranj-Kabul
  • India was granted a 10-year lease and access to the Chabahar free trade zone.
  • India got the opportunity to build the 628 km rail line from Chabahar to Zahedan, just across the border from Afghanistan.
  • India is restricted to the Shahid Beheshti port that is undertaken by India Ports Global Limited (IPGL) which is established for the development of ports overseas.

7. Consider the following statements

Statement-I: Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme aims to encourage soil-balanced fertilization and increase agricultural productivity.

Statement-II: Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme provides subsidies for urea and non-urea-based fertilizers based on the nutrients they contain.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme

The Centre has introduced price capping formula for phosphatic and potassic (P&K) fertilizers under Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme through guidelines issued under the Essential Commodity Act.

  • Launched in – 2010
  • Aim – To encourage soil-balanced fertilization and increase agricultural productivity.
  • It provides subsidies for non-urea-based fertilizers based on the nutrients (N, P, K, and S) they contain.
  • Administered by – Department of Fertilizer, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
  • Objectives – To improve availability of fertilizers to farmers and promote balanced use of fertilizers.
  • To reduce subsidy burden on the Government and encourage competition among fertilizer companies.
  • Coverage – Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) Fertilizers.
  • Subsidy – It is a fixed amount, decided on annual basis.
  • Cost basis – Domestic and international cost of fertilizers, the country's inventory levels, and the currency exchange rate.
  • Additional subsidies – For fertilizers that are enriched with secondary and micronutrients like zinc and molybdenum (Mo).
  • New guidelines – The MRPs are supposed to be market-determined and set by the individual companies selling them.
  • The government merely pays a fixed per-tonne subsidy on each of these fertilisers, linked to their nutrient content.
  • But the Department of Fertilisers has issued detailed guidelines for the evaluation of “reasonableness” of the MRPs for all non-urea fertilisers covered under NBS.

8. “Maasir-i-Alamgiri” is a Persian book written by?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

 

Maasir-i-Alamgiri

  • It is a Persian-language book written by Saqi Musta'd Khan that details the reign of Emperor Aurangzeb (1620-1707).
  • The book was written after the emperor's death, at the request of Inayetullah Khan Kashmiri, the emperor's last secretary.
  • Sir Jadunath Sarkar translated the book into English and labeled it a "Gazetteer of Mughal State".
  • It cited that a temple that stood adjacent to the existing Kashi Vishwanath temple have been razed on the orders of the Aurangzeb, and the Gyanvapi mosque erected on its ruins.

9. Consider the following pairs.

Channel                                           Location

  1. 8 Degree Channel    –          Maldives & Minicoy Island
  2. 9 Degree Channel    –          Minicoy Island & Laccadive
  3. 10 Degree Channel  –          Little Andaman & Nicobar

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Nine-degree Channel

The Indian Air Force (IAF) has proposed to set up a forward fighter airbase in Minicoy Islands, to safeguard the sea lanes of communications and to keep the Arabian Sea free from non-state actors in the region.

  • Location – In the Indian Ocean between the Laccadive Islands of Kalpeni and Suheli Par, and Maliku Atoll of Minicoy.
  • Features – Approximately 200 km wide with a depth of 2597 metres.
  • Lakshadweep – An archipelago consisting of 36 islands.
    • Capital - Kavaratti
    • India’s smallest and uni-district Union Territory.
    • Almost all the inhabited islands are coral atolls.
    • The territory falls under the jurisdiction of the Kerala High Court.

Channels in India

  • 8 Degree Channel – Between Minicoy Island and Maldives
  • 9 Degree Channel – Between Laccadive Islands and Minicoy Island
  • Indian Channel10 Degree Channel – Between Little Andaman and Nicobar

 

10. Which of the following with reference to ‘Amrit Dharohar Scheme’ is correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Amrit Dharohar Scheme

Recently, Ministry of Tourism started training in Bhitarkanika National Park, Odisha under Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme.

  • Launched in – 2023
  • Amrit DaroharAim – To promote unique conservation values of Ramsar Sites’.
  • Ramsar Convention 1971, an intergovernmental treaty for conservation and wise use of wetlands, was ratified by India in 1982.
  • Timeline –June 5, 2023 to June 5, 2026.
  • Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme – It aims to enhance livelihood opportunities for local communities.
  • Implementation – Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management (IITTM), an autonomous body under Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with MoEFCC.
  • Training programmes – Alternative Livelihood program (ALP) and Paryatan Navik Certificate (PNC).
  • Implementation – In 1st phase, 5 Ramsar sites were identified.
    • Sultanpur National Park - Haryana
    • Sirpur wetland – Madhya Pradesh
    • Yashwant Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
    • Bhitarkanika National Park – Odisha
    • Chilika Lake – Odisha

Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra (VBSY)

  • It is Centre’s flagship initiative to raise awareness on its schemes.
  • Launched in – December 2023 and will run till January 2024.
  • Aim – To ensure that all intended beneficiaries are covered under various flagship schemes of the Central government and thereby achieving beneficiary saturation under government schemes.

SARATHI app

  • Launched by – Ministry of Rural Development in partnership with the Nudge Institute.
  • Aim – To address the needs of the most vulnerable, ensuring efficient implementation of developmental programs for rural development.
  • The app will be used in 6 states to support special projects for vulnerable households.

PM Vishwakarma

  • Jammu and Kashmir has become the 1st Union Territory (UT) to implement PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY).
  • It is an initiative that aims to empower and enhance the skills of the craftsman community (Vishwakarmas).
  • 18 traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma.

11. Consider the following statements.

  1. It aims to map the land parcels in rural inhabited areas using drone technology.
  2. It was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
  3. It provides property cards to facilitate monetization of properties, enabling bank loans and comprehensive village-level planning.

All the above given statements are the features of which of the following schemes?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

SVAMITVA

SVAMITVA Scheme wins Best Innovation Award for Innovation Sandbox presentation during Public Policy Dialogues–2024 at Indian School of Business, Hyderabad.

  • SVAMITVA – Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas.
  • Initiative byMinistry of Panchayati Raj, State Panchayati Raj Departments, State Revenue Departments and Survey of India.
  • Launched in – 2021, as a Central Sector Scheme.
  • Aim – For mapping the land parcels in rural inhabited areas using drone technology and Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS).
  • To provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India.
  • SVAMITVA Property Cards – They facilitate monetization of properties, enabling bank loans and comprehensive village-level planning.
  • Target year – 2024–25.
  • Coverage Area – The scheme has been saturated with generation of property cards of all inhabited villages of Haryana, Uttarakhand, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Goa.

PRERANA program

  • It is a week-long residential program for 20 selected students (10 boys and 10 girls) of class IX to XII.
  • Aim – To empower the selected students with leadership qualities.
  • Ministry – Ministry of Education.
  • Prerana program will run from a Vernacular School, established in 1888, in one of the oldest living cities of India, Vadnagar, in Gujarat.
  • The curriculum of Prerana School has been prepared by IIT Gandhi Nagar and is rooted in 9 value-based themes.

12. Consider the following pairs.

       GI Tagged products          States

  1. Adi Apong                              - Assam
  2. Kachchhi Kharek                  - Gujarat
  3. Kalajeera Rice                       - West Bengal
  4. Singpho Phalap                     - Mizoram

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Geographical Indication (GI) Tag Products

  • Geographical indications assign products to the place of its origin, conveying an assurance of quality and distinctiveness for such goods.
  • GI is defined under Article-23 and 24 of the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
  • Under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, GIs are covered as an element of Intellectual Property Rights
  • India is a member of the WTO and thus enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 that came into force from 2003.
  • GI tagged products can be both Natural and Man-made and is valid for ten years.
  • The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling Tea in the year 2004-05.

GI Tagged products

  • Adi Apong is a traditional rice beer brewed by the Adi community from Arunachal Pradesh that has been recognized for its unique flavour and brewing techniques
  • Kachchi Kharek is a variety of dates grown in the Kutch region of Gujarat, they have a soft and chewy texture known for their natural sweetness and rich, caramel like flavour.
  • Koraput Kalajeera rice is known as the ‘Prince of Rice’, it has an aromatic variety originating from Koraput district of Odisha. The rice looks like coriander seeds it is known for its nutritional and cooking quality.
  • Singhpho Phalap is a distinctive tea produced by the Singpho tribe in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Arunachal Pradesh- Recently 12 products namely – Apatani, Monpa, Adi, Galo, Tai Khamti and Nyishi textiles, Monpa handmade paper, Singpho Phalap (Singpho tea), Adi Apong, Dao (machete), Angnyat millet and Marua Apo (Marua millet beverage) have been given GI tag.
  • Adis, Apatanis, Singphos, Monpas, Nyishis, Khamtis are some of the tribes of Arunachal Pradesh

13. Consider the following passage.

He founded the first-ever Kirtan Ghar at Bordowa, Assam in 1494 AD which intended to practice and preach the neo Vaishnavite faith, and propagated the Ek Saran Naam Dharma.

Identify the personalities associated with the above passage.

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Saint Srimanta Sankaradeva

  • Sankardeva founded the first-ever Kirtan Ghar at Bordowa in 1494 AD which intended to practice and preach the neo Vaishnavite faith, and propagated the Ek Saran Naam Dharma.
  • It focussed on worship in the form of bhakti (devotion) to Lord Krishna, through singing and congregational Ek Saran Naam Dharma listening of his name and deeds.
  • Sankardeva espoused a society based on equality and fraternity, free from caste differences, orthodox Brahmanical rituals and sacrifices.
  • His teaching focused on prayer and chanting (naam) instead of idol worship.
  • His dharma was based on 4 components - deva (god), naam (prayers), bhakats (devotees), and guru (teacher).
  • The Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement that Sankardeva started is behind the monastic institutions called Thans/Sattras that dot Assam.
  • Batadrava Than- It is a temple complex, located in Nagaon District, Assam, the birthplace of Vaishnavite reformer-saint Srimanta Sankardeva

14. Consider the following statements with respect to criteria for classical language.

  1. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
  2. The literary tradition should be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
  3. The language should have a body of ancient literature/texts which is considered a valuable heritage by generation of speakers.

How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Classical language criteria

  • Classical LanguagesCurrently, 6 languages enjoy the ‘Classical language status.
  • Guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ -
    • High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
    • A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers
    • The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
  • The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
  • Benefits of Recognition – 2 major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages
  • A Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages is set up.
  • The UGC is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared.

15. The terms Valabhi, Phamsana, Latina, Shekhari, Bhumija is associated with which of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Nagara architecture

  • Depending on the period and geography, there are 5 modes of Nagara architecture - Valabhi, Phamsana, Latina, Shekhari, and Bhumija.

Modes of nagara architecture

  • The first two are associated with what scholars have classified as Early Nagara Style.
  • The Valabhi begins as a masonry rendering of the barrel-roofed [wooden] structure, simple or with aisles, familiar through chaitya halls [prayer halls, most associated with Buddhist shrines].
  • A formalisation of multi-eave towers, wedded to a piling up of slabs, leads to the Phamsana.
  • From these modes emerged the Latina - a single, slightly curved tower with 4 sides of equal length.

Comparison to Dravida style

  • The Dravida counterpart to the shikhara is the vimana.
  • In the Dravida style temples, vimanas are typically smaller than the great gatehouses or gopurams.
  • Dravida styleWhile shikharas are mentioned in south Indian sources, they refer to only the dome-shaped crowning cap atop the vimana.
  • The existence of gopurams also points to another unique feature of the Dravida style, the presence of a boundary wall. Few Nagara style temple complexes are lined with distinctive boundary walls that are a part of the temple’s design.
  • This is one of Ayodhya’s Ram temple’s hybrid features, although no elaborate gopuram has been built, a 732m long wall runs around the temple compound.

16. The term “Camptothecin (CPT)” seen in news, best refers to which of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Nathapodytes nimmonana

  •  Nathapodytes nimmonanaIt is an endangered medicinal plant widely distributed throughout the Western Ghats of India.
  • The plant contains camptothecin (CPT) which is renowned anticancer drugs.
  • Though, CPT found in many plant species but maximum amount of CPT has been reported from N. nimmoniana.
  • The plant has been overharvested, pushing it to the endangered list.
  • The Chinese variety of the plant used to extract the cell is listed as critically endangered.
  • Researchers at the Indian Institutes of Technology Madras and Mandi have metabolically engineered plant cells to increase production of anti-cancer drug camptothecin (CPT).

Camptothecin (CPT)

  • Only two CPT analogs (irinotecan and topotecan) have been approved for cancer treatment.
  • The allopathic medicine is produced using Nathapodytes nimmoniana.
  • Camptothecin is majorly produced in Southeast Asian region, with the plant being largely found only in China and India.

17. “VijayRaghavan Panel Report” often seen in news was tasked with which of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

VijayRaghavan Panel Report

  • Aim - To review the functioning of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  • Earlier in 2008, Dr P Rama Rao Committee was constituted to review the functioning of the DRDO and all the recommendations by the Committee were accepted by the DRDO except the creation of a Board of Research for Advanced Defence Sciences (BRADS).

Recommendations of the committee

  • Focus on research - The DRDO should focus on its original goal of research and development for defence.
  • It should refrain from involving itself in productization, production cycles, and product management, tasks that are more suitable for the private sector.
  • Defence Technology Council - The committee has also suggested a Defence Technology Council (DTC) chaired by the Prime Minister, with the defence minister and the National Security Advisor as its Vice Presidents.
  • It will also have an executive committee chaired by the Chief of Defence Staff (CoDS).
  • It will include representation from academia and industry, with two members from each sector.
  • The Council will determine the country’s defence technology roadmap and decide on major projects and their execution.
  • Separate Department - The panel has also suggested the creation of the Department of Defence Science, Technology, and Innovation under the Defence Ministry.
  • This department will be headed by a technocrat and it will serve as the secretariat for the Defence Tech Council (DTC).
  • Centralized Laboratory - The committee has recommended the setting up of close to 10 national-level laboratory facilities instead of the existing 40 or more DRDO labs across the nation.

Other reports

  • Abhijeet Sen Committee- It was constituted to formulate food policy in the long term.
  • Aruna Sundararajan Committee- It was formed to revive telecom sector.

K V Kamath Panel- To examine the MSME sector.

18. Consider the following statements with respect to National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)

  1. It is released by the NITI Aayog.
  2. Health, education and standard of living are the three dimensions used in MPI.
  3. Assets and Bank accounts are among the indicators measured.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

National Multidimensional Poverty Index

Over 24.8 crore people moved out of poverty in India in 9 years.

  • According to the World Bank, those who are unable to earn 2.15 dollar per day are living in extreme poverty.
  • Released byNITI Aayog, in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
  • Purpose – Plays a role in assessing advancements towards Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) 1.2.
  • National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)It is based on 3 dimensions and 12 indicators.
  • Sub-indices of National MPI:
    • Headcount ratio (H): How many are poor?
    • Intensity of poor (I): How poor are the poor?
    • Formula - MPI= H*I
  • If the deprivation score (sum of the weighted status of all the indicators) for an individual is more than 0.33, then an individual is considered multidimensionally poor.
  • Findings – As many as 24.82 crore people moved out of multidimensional poverty in 9 years to 2022-23, with Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Madhya Pradesh registering the largest decline.
  • All 12 indicators of MPS have shown remarkable improvement during this period.

19. Consider the following statements with respect to Bharat Ratna awards.

  1. The award list is recommended by a committee to the President of India.
  2. It is not mandated to award every year.
  3. The original statute did not provide for awarding posthumously.
  4. The award does not carry any monetary grant.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Bharat Ratna Awards

Recently, the President of India has conferred Bharat Ratna posthumously to former Bihar CM Karpoori Thakur.

  • It is the highest civilian Award in India, instituted in 1954.
  • Eligibility – Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for these awards.
  • For recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour.
  • RecommendationBy Prime Minister himself to the President.
  • Numbers – Restricted to a maximum of 3 in a particular year, but not mandatory to award every year.
  • Award – A Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion but no monetary grant is given.
  • Title – Cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient's name as per Article 18 (1) of the Constitution.
  • However, one may use the expression “Awarded Bharat Ratna by the President” or “Recipient of Bharat Ratna Award”.
  • Posthumous awards – Though original statutes did not provide for this, 1955 amendment permitted them.
  • It has been granted to 49 individuals so far (2024), with 17 posthumously.
  • It was previously awarded in 2019 to Shri Nanaji Deshmukh (posthumously), Dr Bhupendra Kumar Hazarika (posthumously) and Shri Pranab Mukherjee.

20. The terms “Amini and Kalpeni” sometimes seen in the news were associated with?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Amini and Kalpeni

The Kochi-Lakshadweep islands submarine optical fiber connection was recently inaugurated by Prime Minister, Narendra Modi that connects eleven Lakshadweep Islands including Agatti, Amini and Kalpeni.

  • The tiniest Union Territory of India, Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of 12 atolls, 3 reefs and 5 submerged banks.
  • The inhabited islands of Lakshadweep are Kavaratti, Agatti, Amini, Kadmat, Kiltan, Chetlat, Bitra, Andrott, Kalpeni and Minicoy.
  • More than 93% of the population who are indigenous, are Muslims and majority of them belong to the Shafi School of the Sunni Sect.
  • Kochi-Lakshadweep islands submarine optical fibre connection (KLI-SOFC) Project – It covers a wide range of sectors including technology, energy, water resources, healthcare and education.
  • The project submarine cable connectivity from Mainland (Kochi) to 11  Lakshadweep Islands, that includes:
    • Kavaratti, Agatti, Amini, Kadmat, Chetlet, Kalpeni, Minicoy, Androth, Kiltan, Bangaram and Bitra.
  • It will lead to an increase in internet speed unlocking new possibilities & opportunities.
  • The project is funded by Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF), Department of Telecommunication.
  • Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was the Project Executing Agency and the work was awarded to M/s NEC Corporation India Pvt Ltd through Global Open Tendering process.
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