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CA Revision Module - Test 29 (February 2024)

1. Kerch Strait, sometimes seen in the news recently, connects which of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

History of conflict between Russia and Ukraine

  • Crimea’s annexation – Russia took over Crimea, a part of Ukraine, by force in 2014 as Ukraine wanted to join the European Union which Russia sternly objected.
  • Sea of Azov clash – Post Crimea’s annexation, Russia and Ukraine fought over the Sea of Azov.
  • Russia built a bridge over the Kerch strait and blocked Ukraine’s ships from passing through.
  • Kerch Strait – It is a strait in Eastern Europe.
    • It connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov, separating the Kerch Peninsula of Crimea in the west from the Taman Peninsula of Russia's Krasnodar Krai in the east.
  • Russian backed rebels – In the 2 regions of Donbass region, Donetsk and Luhansk regions in eastern Ukraine, they act as independent republics which aggravated the issue.

2. Consider the following statements with respect to Interpol Notice system.

  1. Interpol notices are international requests for cooperation allowing legislatures in member countries to share critical information.
  2. It can be issued only based on the request of member country’s INTERPOL National Central Bureau.
  3. Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPRD) is the national central bureau of India to liaison with Interpol.
  4. Most of these notices are for police use only and are not available to the public.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Interpol Notice system

Recently concerns have been raised about the misuse of Interpol’s notice system, especially the issuance of blue corner notices, which are less scrutinized than their red corner notices.

  • Interpol – International Criminal Police Organisation
  • Interpol Notices – They are international requests for cooperation or alerts allowing police in member countries to share critical crime-related information.
  • Most Notices are for police use only and are not available to the public.
  • However, an extract of the Notice can be published on this site if the requesting country wishes to alert the public or seek their help.
  • All United Nations Special Notices are public.
  • The notices are generally issued by the General Secretariat at the request of
    • A member country’s INTERPOL National Central Bureau.
    • International Criminal Tribunals and the International Criminal Court
    • The United Nations in relation to the implementation of sanctions imposed by the Security Council.

Interpol

  • It is an inter-governmental body founded in 1923.
  • Headquarters – Lyon, France.
  • Members – 196, India joined in 1949.
  • Role – It provides investigative support, expertise and training to law enforcement worldwide, focusing on 3 major areas of transnational crime (Terrorism, cybercrime and organized crime).
  • CBICentral Bureau of Investigation is the national central bureau of India to liaison with Interpol.
  • Interpol UN Cooperation- INTERPOL has enjoyed a special role (Permanent Observer) at the United Nations since 1996.

3. Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: Fair and Remunerative Price is the minimum price that sugar mills have to pay to farmers for sugarcane.

Statement-II: Minimum Selling Price (MSP) for Sugarcane is the minimum price at which sugar mills can sell sugar to the market.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Minimum Selling Price (MSP) for Sugarcane

  • MSP – It is the minimum price at which sugar mills can sell sugar to the market.
  • It was introduced by the Centre under the Sugar Price (Control) Order, 2018.
  • Aim – To ensure that the industry gets at least the minimum cost of production of sugar.
  • Calculation – By taking FRP and adding minimum conversion cost incurred by sugar mills running at highest efficiency.
  • It is announced to arrest the constant slide of sugar and to keep the demand and supply ratio to a safe limit.
  • The Centre had also fixed mill-wise sales quota.
  • The mills breaching either of the conditions were liable for action under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
  • Fair and Remunerative Price – It is the minimum price that sugar mills have to pay to farmers for sugarcane.

4. Consider the following statements with respect to Elephant Reserves in India.

  1. India’s 33rd elephant reserve Terai is located in Uttar Pradesh.
  2. The State of Karnataka has the maximum number of elephant reserves in India.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Elephant Reserves in India

  • Indian elephant – Elephas maximus, occurs in the central and southern Western Ghats, North-east India, eastern India and northern India and in some parts of southern peninsular India.
  • It occurs in 16 of the 28 states in the country.
  • Protection Status
    • Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
    • Appendix I of the CITES.
    • IUCN – Endangered.
  • Project Elephant – It was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with following objectives:
    • To protect elephants, their habitat & corridors
    • To address issues of man-animal conflict
    • Welfare of captive elephants
  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides the financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through Project Elephant.

Elephant Reserves in India

  • There are 33 elephant reserves in 14 major elephant States.
  • They overlap with Tiger Reserves, Wildlife Sanctuaries and Reserved Forests which are protected under Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, Indian Forest Act, 1927 and other local State Acts.
  • Tamil Nadu and Assam has the maximum number of Elephant reserves (5) in India.

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Outer Space Treaty, 1967?

  1. It was adopted by United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
  2. It is also called as Magna Carta of space law.
  3. There shall be free access to all areas of celestial bodies.
  4. India signed the treaty in 1967 but yet to ratify it.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Outer Space Treaty (OST), 1967

Recently US accused Russia of developing a space based nuclear weapon that could destroy or damage other satellites in the orbit.

  • OST, often called as the magna carta of space law, is formally known as the “Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies.”
  • Adopted byUN General Assembly in 1967.
  • India signed the treaty in 1967 and ratified in 1982.
  • The provisions of the treaty are binding on the signatories.
  • Peaceful use of outer space – For peaceful purposes, and the exploration of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit of all.
  • Outer space including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by any means.
  • International cooperation in the exploration and use of outer spac.
  • Prohibition of weapons of mass destruction and military bases on celestial bodies is prohibited.
  • The exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit of all countries, and there shall be free access to all areas of celestial bodies.
  • States are internationally liable for any damage caused by their space activities to other states or their space objects.
  • The private entities and other non-government organizations are required to avoid harmful contamination of outer space and celestial bodies.
  • States are obligated to register space objects launched into outer space with the UN Registry of Objects Launched into Outer Space.
  • States are obligated to render assistance to astronauts in distress and to return them safely to Earth.
  • States are encouraged to inform the international community in advance about any space activities that could cause harmful interference with the activities of other states.
  • States are encouraged to consult with each other and coordinate their activities in outer space to prevent harmful interference.

6. Consider the following statements with respect to Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ).

  1. It is geographically spread in the states of Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
  2. Taj Mahal, Akbar’s Tomb and Fatehpur Sikri are the three world heritage sites that are covered under this zone.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Taj Trapezium Zone

Recently, the Supreme Court of India asked the Centrally Empowered Committee to find out an alternative solution to cutting down 3,874 trees for the construction of a road project in the Taj Trapezium Zone.

  • A defined area of 10,400 sq km around the Taj Mahal, named so, as is located around the Taj Mahal.
  • Aim – To protect the monument from pollution.
  • Geographical spread – Over 5 districts in Uttar Pradesh and 1 district in Rajasthan.
  • Coverage – Over 40 protected monuments including 3 World Heritage SitesTaj Mahal, Agra Fort and Fatehpur Sikri.
  • Regulations – Bans on the use of coal/ coke industries located in the TTZ and mandates for relocating them outside the TTZ.

7. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Paruveta Utsavam?

  1. It is an annual mock hunting festival.
  2. It is celebrated by Chenchu tribes in Odisha.
  3. It is one among the list of UNESCO’s Intangible cultural heritage.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Paruveta Utsavam

The Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) is making efforts to secure UNESCO recognition for the annual 'Paruveta' festival as an 'intangible cultural heritage'.

  • It is an annual mock hunting festival, celebrated at Sri Narasimha Swamy temple in Ahobilam in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Chenchu tribes consider Ahobila Narashima as their brother-in-law and the tradition is inviting him home on Makar Sankranti.
  • Festival – It starts with the tribals shooting 2 arrows at the palanquin, which is taken to the 32 Chenchu tribal villages surrounding Ahobilam town for a duration of 40 days.
  • Unlike other Paruveta, Ahobilam Utsav is the only tradition conducted for a ‘mandala’ (40 days).
  • The temple staff stay in these hamlets for the entire period, indicating the presence of a casteless society in the past, with no hint of untouchability.
  • Tribal link – By ‘Guru Parampara’, the temple is governed by the 600-year-old Ahobila Mutt, which encouraged this tribal festival to spread Srivaishnavism among the folk tribes.

8. Consider the following pairs.

          Languages                           Regions

  1. Santali                       –          Jharkhand
  2. Kokborok                  –          Tripura
  3. Badaga                       –          Odisha

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Santali Language

Recently, a book ‘10 Indian Languages and How They Came to Be’ was published that traced the evolution, transformation and development of Santali language.

  • It is the predominant language of Santal tribes, India’s largest tribal community.
  • Native speakers – Spread across 4 states with about 44% in Jharkhand followed by West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar.
  • Also found in Nepal and Bangladesh.
  • Family – Austro-Asiatic language.
  • Jeremiah Phillips, an American missionary, devised a writing system for Santali using the Bangla script.
  • Ol Chiki (Alchiki) script – It was devised by Pandit Raghunath Murmu (Guru Gomke) in 1925 which used signs and symbols from environment like hills, rivers, trees, plough, and sickle.
  • Recognition – It was included in the 8th Schedule in 2003 and is an additional official language in Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Kokborok language

  • The Tripura Board of Secondary Education (TBSE) has allowed both the Roman and Bengali scripts for Kokborok exam in Tripura.
  • Native Speakers – Borok people or Tripuris.
  • It is spoken by 9 sub-tribe or clan of Borok community.
  • Lingua franca – For Tripura’s 19 tribal communities.
  • Language family – Tibeto-Burman, also has close affinity with Bodo, Garo, Dimasa etc.
  • Written form – It started in 1897 as Doulot Ahammad a Muslim scholar wrote the 1st Kokborok Grammar ‘Kokboroma and Tripura – Vyakaran Grammer’.
  • Kokborok and Bengali are the official languages of Tripura.

Badaga tribes

  • It is a unique ethnic group in the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • Badaga language – It is a 2,300-year-old Dravidian language spoken by the Badaga people in the Nilgiris bearing striking similarities to Kannada.
  • It is categorised as a “definitely endangered language” by UNESCO.

9. Consider the following pairs.

          Martial Arts                       Practiced in

  1. Kalaripayattu            –          Kerala
  2. Gatka                         –          Punjab
  3. Khukuri Dance         –          Sikkim
  4. Krav Maga                 –          Arunachal Pradesh

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Martial Arts

Post the Galwan violent clash between India and China, the Army has decided to add martial arts to the regular training of troops.

Krav Maga 

  • It is an effective, modern, and dynamic self-defence and fighting system.
  • It was originally taught to the Israeli Army, and instruction for civilians began in 70s.

Kalaripayattu

  • Developed in Kerala, it is considered among the oldest and most scientific martial arts in the world.
  • It includes exercises to develop sharp reflexes for unarmed combat and skillful fight using sticks, dagger, sword, shield, Urumi etc.
  • It is noted for its high-flying acrobatics and the movements of Kalari are based on the mannerisms and fighting techniques of animals.

Gatka

  • It is a style of stick fighting between two or more practitioners, with wooden sticks (called Soti) intended to simulate swords.
  • It was one of basic technique of self-defence for Sikh warriors during the martial period of great Sikh Gurus in Punjab.

Khukuri Dance 

  • It is a Gurkha folk dance that originated in the state of Sikkim.
  • It is a small knife which symbolises victory, robustness and power.
  • The dance is also performed as a tribute to soldiers for the security they provide.

10. Consider the following pairs.

             Projects                                                    States

  1. Kaleshwaram Irrigation Project    –          Andhra Pradesh
  2. Nokhra Solar Project                      –          Rajasthan
  3. Kiru Hydel Project                           –          Jammu and Kashmir         

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Kaleshwaram Irrigation Project

  • Kaleshwaram is a town on Godavari right bank in Telangana, about 300 km downstream of major dam, Sriram Sagar project (SRSP).
  • At Kaleshwaram, the major tributary Pranahita, which merges with Godavari brings large quantity of water, the place is also known as Sangam and Dakshin Ganga.
  • The project proposes to lift about 180 TMC (about 5 billion cubic meters) of water.
  • Besides, it involves constructions of network storage dams, tunnels, canals water passing through several stages of pumping and reverse flow into Godavari River.    

Nokhra Solar Project

  • The project is located in Bikaner district of Rajasthan.
  • The project works under the aegis of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

Kiru Hydel Project

  • It is a run-of-river scheme on the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir to be completed in 2025.
  • It is being constructed between the existing Kirthai II and Kwar hydel power projects.
  • It will be developed near the convergence point of river Chenab and the Singad and Bela streams.

11. Consider the following statements with respect to Global Mercury Partnership

  1. It aims to protect human health and the environment from the releases of mercury to air, water and land.
  2. It was launched by the World Economic Forum.
  3. It extends financial assistance to developing nations to address and mitigate mercury pollution issues.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Global Mercury Partnership

The United Nation's Global Mercury Partnership has raised concerns about the increasing mercury levels affecting the marine mammals.

  • Aim - To protect human health and the environment from the releases of mercury to air, water and land.
  • Launched by - United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • It consists of stakeholders from governments, intergovernmental organizations, NGOs, private sector, academia and scientific community.
  • There is no financial grant provided under the Global Mercury Partnership.
  • It was initiated at the 23rd session of UNEP Governing Council/Global Ministerial Environment Forum in 2005.
  • It establishes a Partnership Advisory Group, which plays a key role in guiding and encouraging the work of the Partnership and its areas of work.

12. Consider the following statements with respect to Genome India Project

  1. It aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome grid.
  2. It is based on Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) platform.
  3. It is a national project funded by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Genome India Project

The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) said that the exercise to sequence 10,000 Indian human genomes and create a database under the Centre-backed Genome India Project is about two-thirds complete.

  • Genome – The human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of each human body.
  • It carries the complete genetic information responsible for the development and functioning of the organism.
  • Genome sequencing - The process of deciphering the order of base pairs, to decode the genetic fingerprint of a human is called genome sequencing.
  • While the sequence or order of base pairs is identical in all humans, compared to that of other species, there are differences in the genome of every human being that makes them unique.

Applications

  • Evaluate rare disorders, preconditions for disorders and cancer.
  • Tool for prenatal screening, to investigate whether the foetus has genetic disorders or anomalies.
  • Liquid biopsies, where a small amount of blood is examined for DNA markers.

Human Genome Project (HGP)

  • Carried out from 1990–2003, the Human Genome Project was a landmark global scientific effort to generate the first sequence of the human genome.
  • The first results of the complete human genome sequence were given in 2003, while the HGP released the latest version of the complete human genome in 2023, with a 0.3% error margin.

Genome India Project (GIP)

  • Goal – To collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome grid.
  • It is based on Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) platform.
  • The basic next-generation sequencing process involves fragmenting DNA/RNA into multiple pieces, adding adapters, sequencing the libraries, and reassembling them to form a genomic sequence.
  • Launch - In 2020; Partner organisations - 20
  • Initiative by - Indian Institute of Science’s (IISC) Centre for Brain Research.
  • Funded by – Department of Biotechnology.

13. Consider the following statements with respect to the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

  1. It is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application.
  2. The fund transfer through UPI is faster than National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT).
  3. UPI is regulated by the National Payments Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL).

How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

  • It is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application.
  • It is a real-time payment system that helps in instant and quick transfer of funds between two bank accounts.
  • It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience.
  • The fund transfer through UPI is faster than National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT).
  • The idea of UPI was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and is controlled by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the IBA (Indian Bank Association).

14. Consider the following statements.

It was reconstructed in 1565 by Chilarai, who was the reigning king of the Koch dynasty. This temple is dedicated to different forms of Mother Shakti. Ambubachi Mela is one of the major festivals of this temple.

Identify the temple using the description given above.

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Kamakhya temple

Recently Prime Minister Inaugurated the Kamakhya temple corridor project in Guwahati, Assam.

  • The Kamakhya temple is located on the Nilachal hills, at a distance of 7 km from Guwahati, Assam.
  • It is one of the biggest Shakti shrines in the country and an important pilgrimage centre for tantric worshippers and Hindus.
  • It is also considered important as it is the temple where the beliefs and practices of the Aryan communities coincide with non-Aryan communities.
  • It was reconstructed in 1565 by Chilarai, who was the reigning king of the Koch dynasty.
  • This temple is dedicated to different forms of Mother Shakti namely Sundari, Tripura, Tara, Bhuvaneshvari, Bagalamukhi and Chinnamasta.
  • Ambubachi Mela is one of the major festivals of this temple.
  • The festival is held every year to commemorate the yearly menstruation of Goddess Kamakhya.
  • It is also said that during the month of mid-June, which is also an Ahar, there is a natural spring which flows through the yoni.
  • It is also dedicated to different forms of Lord Shiva, there are 5 temples within the complex of Kamakhya temple.
  • In addition, the temple complex also houses three temples of Lord Vishnu, present in the form of Kedara, Gadadhara and Pandunath.

15. Consider the following statements with respect to the Central Asian Flyway (CAF):

  1. It lies entirely within the Northern Hemisphere.
  2. India is located within the Central Asian Flyway.
  3. It is the shortest flyway in the world.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Central Asian Flyway (CAF)

Central Asian Flyway recognised to protect over 600 migratory bird species.

  • A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or a group of migratory species completes its annual cycle i.e. breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding.
  • The Central Asian Flyway (CAF) covers a large continental area of Eurasia between the Arctic and Indian Oceans and the associated island chains.
  • CAF extends from the northernmost breeding grounds in Siberia to the southernmost non-breeding (wintering) grounds in West and South Asia, the Maldives and the British Indian Ocean Territory.
  • The Central Asian Flyway is the shortest flyway in the world.
  • Lying entirely within the Northern Hemisphere, it connects a large swathe of the Palaearctic with the Indian subcontinent.
  • 370 species of migratory bird from 3 flyways (CAF, East Asian Australasian Flyway and Asian East African Flyway) are reported to visit the Indian sub-continent during their annual cycle.
  • India is one among the countries in Central Asian Flyway.

16. MakhaBucha, sometimes seen in the news recently, is associated with?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

MakhaBucha

MakhaBucha Ceremony was organized at SanamLuang Pavilion that houses holy relics from India.

  • The MakhaBucha (Magh Puja) ceremony is one of the 5 most revered events for Buddhists in Thailand.
  • It was conducted by the esteemed Somdet and other senior monks of Thailand.
  • MakhaBucha Day (Magha Puja) is a religious celebration marking Lord Buddha’s teachings to his disciples.
  • The term makha comes from the word Magha in Pali and it refers to the 3rd lunar month, while bucha can translate as to worship, both of which are derived from the Pali language used in Buddhist scripture.
  • The term MakhaBucha refers to a day intended for worshiping on the 3rd lunar month.
  • It takes place in nations including Thailand, Laos and Cambodia, where the majority of Buddhists practice Theravada Buddhism, also known as Buddhism of the south.

17. Which of the following best describes the term ‘Micellar Water’?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Micellar Water

  • Micellar water is a product that is commonly used to remove make-up.
  • It’s a very effective cleanser and many people use in their skincare routine.
  • Micellar water products contain micelles, a cluster of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances.
  • The micelles in micellar water are formed by special molecules known as surfactants. Surfactant stands for surface active agent.
  • Surfactants can be found in dishwashing detergent, body wash, shampoo, toothpaste and even many foods.
  • In all of these cases, they are there to help the water interact with the dirt and oils and micellar water is no different.
  • Black water – An alkaline solution that is infused with fulvic acid and contain several nutrients.
  • Grey water – A type of domestic wastewater that has less nitrogen and phosphorus than black water.
  • Alkaline water – A water that has a higher pH level than that of plain tap water and can neutralize acid in your bloodstream.

18. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Skimmer

  1. It is a migratory species that breeds in Russia and East Asia.
  2. They spend most of their life cycle above the treeline.
  3. It has been listed under the Convention of Migratory Species (CMS) of wild animals.

How many of the statement(s) given is/are above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Indian Skimmer (Rynchops albicollis)

India and Bangladesh submitted the joint proposal to list Indian skimmer under the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) of Wild Animals at the 14th COP meeting of CMS.

  • Indian skimmer – It can ‘skim’ over water to snap up fish, is characterised by a bright orange bill.
  • Habitat – It is almost completely restricted to India as a breeding bird, with only occasional breeding in western Bangladesh.
  • It occurs primarily on larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around lakes and adjacent marshes and in the non-breeding season, estuaries and coasts.
  • It can be found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India.
  • Tree line - The tree line is the edge of a habitat at which trees are capable of growing and beyond which they are not. It is found at high elevations and high latitudes. Beyond the tree line, trees cannot tolerate the environmental conditions. 
  • The recent population decline of Indian skimmer has been accompanied by a range contraction and there are no recent confirmed breeding records from Pakistan or Myanmar. Nesting success is currently very low.
  • Distribution – In India the species remains widely distributed, but breeding areas are now highly restricted along the rivers such as Chambal, Ganges, Yamuna, Mahanadi and Son.               
  • They breed between February to June and raise one to three chicks per clutch.

Conservation status

  • IUCN Red List - Endangered 
  • WPA 1972 - Schedule I 
  • It is not listed under the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

19. Consider the following statements with respect to Kala-Azar

  1. It is a parasitic infection transmitted by sandflies.
  2. India has recently become the first country in the world to be officially validated by the WHO for eliminating it as a public health problem.
  3. The National Health Policy (2002) originally sought to eliminate Kala Azar by 2010.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Kala Azar (visceral leishmaniasis)

  • It is a parasitic infection transmitted by sandflies.
  • Symptoms – It causes fever, weight loss, spleen and liver enlargement. Left untreated, it can be fatal in 95% of cases.
  • Measures taken by India – Government of India launched a centrally sponsored Kala-azar control Programme in 1990-91.
  • The National Health Policy (2002) originally set a target of 2010, and later revised it to 2015.
  • Now India's Kala-Azar Elimination Programme aims to eliminate the disease by 2023.
  • In October 2023, Bangladesh became the first country in the world to be officially validated by the WHO for eliminating Kala Azar as a public health problem.
  • Elimination for Kala Azar is defined as no block in the country reporting more than one case per 10,000 people.
  • India is yet to eliminate the Kala-Azar disease officially.
  • PKDL or Post Kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis, is a well-recognised complication which causes scaly skin patches and nodular lesions in people who have been apparently cured of Kala Azar up to 2 years of the initial infection.

20. Consider the following statements with respect to IBSA Fund

  1. It aims to identify replicable and scalable projects that can be disseminated to interested developing countries.
  2. It was established jointly by India, Brazil and South Africa.
  3. New Development Bank (NDB) serves as the Fund Manager and Secretariat of the IBSA Fund.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

IBSA Fund

Recently, India has contributed 1 million USD to IBSA Fund.

  • IBSA Fund – India, Brazil and South Africa Facility for Poverty and Hunger Alleviation Fund.
  • Created in – 2004, but became operation in 2006.
  • Established by – India, Brazil and South Africa, commonly called as IBSA countries.
  • Aim – To identify replicable and scalable projects that can be disseminated to interested developing countries as examples of good practices in the fight against poverty and hunger.
  • To support for Southern-led, demand-driven, transformational projects in developing countries.
  • Fund Manager and Secretariat –United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC), established by UN General Assembly in 1974 and hosted by UN Development Programme (UNDP).
  • Fund – Each of the IBSA countries contribute 1 million USD annually.
  • India has contributed more than 18 million USD in total.
  • Projects – Through partnerships with local governments, national institutions and implementing partners.
  • Fund allocation – 50.6 million USD to date, supporting 45 projects across 37 countries of the global South.
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