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CA Revision Module - Test 31 (March 2024)

1. Consider the following statements with respect to Elections in Rajya Sabha

Statement-I: The provisions of the Tenth Schedule, with respect to voting against the instruction of the party, will not be applicable for a Rajya Sabha election. 

Statement-II: The elections to Rajya Sabha are not treated as a proceeding within the Legislative Assembly. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Elections in Rajya Sabha

The recent Rajya Sabha election in several States raised concerns about the sanctity of election process as it witnessed cross-voting by MLAs.

  • As per Article 80, the members of Rajya Sabha elected indirectly by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each State and the respective Union Territories.
  • Cross voting – It occurs when members vote for a candidate from a party different from the one to which they belong which questions the integrity of election process.
  • Open ballot system – To prevent cross-voting, an amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 2003 introduced an open ballot system for Rajya Sabha elections.
  • Members are required to show their ballot paper to the authorized agent of their party. Failure to do so may result in disqualification of the vote.
  • Kuldip Nayar versus Union of India (2006) – The Supreme Court upheld the system of open ballot for Rajya Sabha elections.
  • The court is of the view that if secrecy in voting became a source of corruption, transparency had the potential to eliminate it.
  • However, the Election Commission specified that the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, with respect to voting against the instruction of the party, will not be applicable for a Rajya Sabha elections.
  • The elections to Rajya Sabha are not treated as a proceeding within the Legislative Assembly
  • Furthermore, political parties cannot issue any ‘whip’ to its members for such elections.

2. Consider the following pairs with respect to WTO’s Subsidies.

         WTO Subsidies                Limits

  1. Green box          –          Subjected to reduction commitments
  2. Blue box             –          Trade distortive subsidies
  3. Amber box          –          No limits

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

World Trade Organization’s types of subsidies

3. Consider the following countries.

  1. Argentina
  2. Brazil
  3. India
  4. Ukraine
  5. Pakistan

How many of the above countries are member of Cairns Group?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Cairns Group

  • Cairns Group is a coalition of 20 agricultural fair-trading countries which together account for almost 30% of the world’s agricultural exports.
  • It was launched in 1986 at Cairns, Australia just before the beginning of the Uruguay Round.
  •  Vision – Deep cuts to all tariffs including tariff peaks and removal of tariff escalation
  • Elimination of all trade-distorting domestic subsidies
  • Elimination of export subsidies and clear rules to prevent circumvention of export subsidy commitments.
  • Member countries Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Guatemala, Indonesia, Malaysia, New Zealand, Pakistan, Paraguay, Peru, the Philippines, South Africa, Thailand, Ukraine, Uruguay and Vietnam.
  • India is not a member of Cairns Group.

4. Match the following with reference to the three stages of India’s Nuclear Program.

Stages

Types of nuclear reactor

By-Product

1. Stage-I

a. Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs

p. Plutonium-239

2. Stage-II

b. Fast Breeder Reactor q. Energy,Uranium-233 and Plutonium-239

3. Stage-III

c. Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWR) r. Energy and Uranium- 233

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Three stages of India’s nuclear program

  • Formulation – By Homi Bhabha who is credited as “father of India’s nuclear program”.
  • Launch year – 1954.
  • Aim – To achieve complete self-sufficiency in nuclear energy by leveraging India's significant thorium resources.
  • The ultimate goal was to capitalize on India’s vase thorium reserves while accounting for its low uranium reserves.
  • India has only about 2% of the global uranium reserves but 25% of the world’s thorium reserves which is found in the monazite sands of coastal regions of South India.
  • Closed fuel cycle – The three stages feed into each other in such a way that the spent fuel generated from one stage of the cycle is reprocessed and used in the next stage of the cycle to produce power.
  • The closed fuel cycle helps to breed fuel and minimise the nuclear waste.
  • Thorium – It is viewed as the fuel of the future, Stage-III aims at using thorium as fuel for power generation on a commercial scale.
Stages

Types of nuclear reactor

By-Product

Stage-I

Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs

Plutonium-239

Stage-II

Fast Breeder Reactor Energy,Uranium-233 and Plutonium-239

Stage-III

Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWR) Energy and Uranium- 233

5. Consider the following statements with respect to Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)

  1. India’s first indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor was recently commenced core loading at Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant, Tamil Nadu.
  2. PFBR has been fully designed and constructed indigenously by BHAVINI.
  3. Once commissioned, India will only be the second country after USA to have commercial operating Fast Breeder Reactor.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)

The vital second stage of India’s three-stage nuclear programme got a boost with the commencement of ‘core loading’ at the country’s first indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.

  • Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) - It is the vital 2nd stage of India’s 3-stage nuclear programme.
  • Core loading - It is the process of placing nuclear fuel assemblies inside the core of a nuclear reactor.
  • The Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) will initially use the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel.
  • PFBR is an advanced third generation reactor with inherent passive safety features ensuring a prompt and safe shut down of the plant in the event of an emergency.
  • PFBR has been fully designed and constructed indigenously by Bhartiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI).
  • Once commissioned, India will only be the second country after Russia to have commercial operating Fast Breeder Reactor.

6. How cruise missiles are different from ballistic missiles?

  1. Ballistic missiles are powered throughout its flight whereas cruise missiles are powered only in the first phase of flight.
  2. Cruise missiles travel at low altitudes whereas ballistic missiles travelled at high altitudes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
 

Cruise missiles

Ballistic missiles

Operation

Powered throughout its flightmanoeuvrable

Powered only in the first phase of flight, not manoeuvrable

Range

Typically 1,000 km, can be as much as 4000 km

From <1,000 km to >10,000 km, missiles are classified according to range

Trajectory

Low altitude, level trajectory — hard to detect

High altitude, parabolic trajectory — hard to detect

Precision

High, up to a few metres — fit for small, moving targets

Low precision, roughly a few 100 m — fit for larger, stationary targets

Speed

Subsonic (Mach 5) — slower than ballistic missiles, possible to intercept

Can hit targets at >25,000 km/h or >Mach 20 — very fast, extremely hard to intercept even with state of art technology

7. Consider the following statements with respect to Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)

  1. It aims to limit the spread of ballistic missiles and other unmanned delivery systems that could be used for chemical, biological and nuclear attacks.
  2. It was established by the G-7 industrialized countries.
  3. India is a part of the regime since 2016.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)

  • Aim To limit the spread of ballistic missiles and other unmanned delivery systems that could be used for chemical, biological, and nuclear attacks.
  • Launch year – 1987.
  • Establishment – By the G-7 industrialized countries (Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the UK, and the United States).
  • Member countries – 35.
  • IndiaIt is a part of the regime since 2016.
  • Restrictions – The regime urges the member countries to restrict their exports of missiles and related technologies capable of carrying a 500-kilogram payload at least 300 kilometers or delivering any type of weapon of mass destruction.

8. Shanan Hydropower Project, sometimes seen in the news recently, is located at Uhl River. Uhl River is a tributary of?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Shanan Hydropower Project

The Centre has ordered that status quo be maintained on the Shanan hydropower project, over which Punjab and Himachal Pradesh have made competing claims.

  • Shanan Hydropower Project is a British-era 110-MW hydel project which has been a point of contention between Punjab and Himachal Pradesh.
  • It is located at Uhl (a tributary of the Beas River) in Himachal Pradesh.
  • It is controlled by the Punjab Power Corporation Limited (PSPCL).
  • PSPCL is a profit-making entity, generating a revenue of Rs 200 crore per annum.
  • It was originally leased to Punjab in 1925 signed by Raja Joginder Bahadur (then ruler of Mandi) and Col BC Batty, a British representative and Chief Engineer of Punjab.
  • The 99-year-old lease came to an end on March 2, 2024.
  • Himachal Pradesh contends that the project should remain under its control once the lease expires, it stated that they would not allow Punjab to stake claim on the project after the lease period.

9. Consider the following statements with respect to Self Help Groups (SHGs)

  1. SHGs are self-managed and have well-defined rules and by-laws.
  2. SHGs can be formal or informal.
  3.  Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Self Help Groups (SHGs)

  • A Self-Help Group is an informal association of individuals who come together to improve their living conditions.
  • It can be formal (registered) or informal. Registration under any Societies Act, State cooperative Act or a partnership firm is not mandatory.
  • It is a self-governed and peer-controlled group comprising people with similar socio-economic backgrounds and a shared desire to achieve a common purpose.
  • Members of SHG agree to save regularly and contribute to a common fund.
  • The members agree to use this common fund and such other funds (like grants and loans from banks), which they may receive as a group, to give small loans to needy members as per the decision of the group.
  • As per National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) data, there are around 9 million SHGs with nearly 100 million women members, averaging 14 SHGs per village.
  • The concept of SHGs began in the 1970s, notably with the formation of the Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) in Gujarat.
  • In 1992, SHGs were linked to banks for small loans, leading to the SHG Bank Linkage Project (SHG-BLP) for setting up livelihood opportunities.
  • Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana was launched in 1999 to recognize the potential of SHGs in promoting self-employment in rural areas.
  • In 2011, SHGs were integrated into the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), becoming core implementers of the government's objective to ensure livelihood opportunities for the poor.

10. Consider the following statements with respect to the Cervical Cancer.

  1. Almost all cervical cancer cases are caused due to high-risk Human papillomavirus (HPV).
  2. The 90-70-90 targets are a set of goals set by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2020 to eliminate cervical cancer by 2030.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Cervical Cancer

India’s interim Union Budget 2024-25 has taken a significant step by supporting the vaccination of girls aged 9 to 14 against cervical cancer, marking a new era in women’s health.

  • Cervical cancer – It is a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix -the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.
  • It is a common sexually transmitted infection which is caused mainly due to the long-lasting infection with certain types of Human papillomavirus (HPV).
  • Almost all cervical cancer cases (99%) are caused due to high-risk HPV, a highly common virus transmitted through sexual contact.
  • It is preventable as long as it is detected early and managed effectively.
  • Symptoms:
    • Vaginal bleeding after intercourse, between periods or after menopause,
    •  Pelvic pain or pain during intercourse
    • Watery, bloody vaginal discharge that may be heavy and have a foul odour.
  • Global Strategy for Cervical Cancer Elimination – In 2020, the WHO adopted this strategy in order to eliminate cervical cancer as a public health problem.
  • 90-70-90 Targets – These are a set of goals set by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2020 to eliminate cervical cancer by 2030.
  • Two vaccines licensed globally that are available in India are:
    • A quadrivalent vaccine (Gardasil, from Merck) and
    • A bivalent vaccine (Cervarix, from GlaxoSmithKline).
  • Cervavac – It is India’s first indigenous quadrivalent human papillomavirus vaccine (qHPV) vaccine and intended to protect women against cervical cancer.
  • It is developed by the Serum Institute of India in collaboration with the Department of Biotechnology.
  • Bhutan was the first Low Middle Income Country to launch a nationwide HPV vaccination program for girls aged 12 to 18 in 2010.
  • It achieved an initial coverage of 95%, research shown a decrease in the prevalence of HPV transmission.

11. Which of the following regulates the State’s borrowing in India?

  1. Article 293
  2. 7th Schedule
  3. Finance Commission
  4. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Regulation of State’s borrowing in India

  • The State’s borrowing in India in India are regulated by:
    • Article 293
    • 7th Schedule
    • Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
    • Finance Commission
    • State’s own Fiscal Responsibility Acts.
    • Union Government
  • Article 293 – It grants fiscal autonomy to states, allowing them to borrow only from within the territory of India on guarantee from the Consolidated Fund of the State.
  • 7th Schedule – Fiscal matters are delineated in the 7th Schedule of the Constitution, with "Public Debt of the State" falling under the State List, giving states exclusive jurisdiction over this matter.
  • FRBM Act 2003 – The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act 2003 was enacted to ensure intergenerational equity in fiscal management, it sets limit on fiscal deficit and borrowing for both the Central and State governments.
  • Finance Commission – It periodically makes recommendations regarding fiscal matters, including borrowing limits for States, it is crucial for determining the borrowing ceilings for states, taking into account factors such as economic conditions, fiscal health, and developmental needs.
  • State Fiscal Responsibility Acts – Each State may have its own Fiscal Responsibility Act, which further defines the limits and guidelines for borrowing and fiscal management within the State.
  • Role of Centre – It plays a significant role in overseeing fiscal matters, including approving borrowing limits for States based on recommendations from bodies like Finance Commission.
  • It can influence the State’s borrowing limits through legislative changes, amendments to existing laws like the FRBM Act, or by exercising discretion in granting additional funds or relaxing borrowing constraints in exceptional circumstances.

12. Consider the following statements with respect to Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 2024

  1. It overhauled the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983 to improve and contemporize the entire process of certification of films for public exhibition.
  2. The UA category is classified into UA+, UA13+ and UA16+, aiding parents in content suitability decisions for children.
  3. According to the rules, two-third of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) Board shall be women.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 2024

Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India has notified the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 2024 in accordance with the Cinematograph (Amendment) Act, 2023.

                      Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 2024

Key aspects

About

Aim

To streamline and modernise the film certification process for the digital age, keeping pace with the emerging technologies and advancement in the film sector

Comprehensive revision

Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983 have been comprehensively overhauled in order to improve and contemporize the entire process of certification of films for public exhibition.

Online certification process

It is adopted to enhance transparency, efficiency, and ease of doing business for the film industry.

Time-effective

Implementation of complete digital processes is to eliminate transactional time and reduce the time taken for film certification.

Accessibility features

Movies/feature films to have accessibility features for certification to make it inclusive for disabled persons, as stipulated in the guidelines issued in this regard from time to time.

Age- based certification

The UA category is classified into UA+, UA13+ and UA16+, these would serve as recommendations for parents or guardians to decide whether the content is suitable for their children.

Women representation

Ensuring greater representation of women in the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) Board and Advisory Panels, with one-third of the members on the Board being women, and preferably half on the Panels.

Priority screening

It is provided to expedite the certification process in case of urgency felt by filmmakers due to prior commitments, this would enhance transparency and promote ease of doing business.

Perpetual validity of certificates

Removal of the restriction on the validity of certificates for only 10 years for perpetual validity of CBFC certificates

Recertification for TV broadcast

Recertification of the edited film for Television broadcast, as only Unrestricted Public Exhibition category films can be shown on television.

13. Consider the following statements with respect to Atmospheric Research Testbed

  1. It aims to study the vital cloud processes associated with the Indian monsoon, particularly focusing on the Monsoon Core Zone (MCZ) in central India.
  2. It is a component under AWaRe (Access, Watch, Reserve) program of Indian Meteorological Department (IMD).
  3. It is being funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Atmospheric Research Testbed

Recently the 1st phase of India’s Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was inaugurated at Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh

  • About - It is an open-field observational and analytical research program.
  • Aim - To study vital cloud processes associated with the Indian monsoon, particularly focusing on the Monsoon Core Zone (MCZ) in central India.
  • MCZ is the core monsoon zone is a region in India that stretches from Gujarat in the west to West Bengal in the east.
  • Funded by - The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
  • Implemented by - The Indian Institute of Tropical Metrology, Pune.
  • ART-CI - It is a component under Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services (ACROSS).
  • ACROSS Scheme - It is a Central Sector Scheme, pertains to the atmospheric science programs of MoES.
  • The sub-schemes under the ACROSS scheme are multi-disciplinary in nature and will be implemented in an integrated manner through 4 institutes.
  • Access, Watch and Reserve (AWaRe) – It is a classification tool of World Health Organization (WHO) for monitoring antibiotic consumption.
  • It defines the targets and monitors the effects of stewardship policies that aim to optimize antibiotic use and curb antimicrobial resistance.

14. DIANA, sometimes seen in the news recently, is an initiative of?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

DIANA Initiative

Recently Finland joined the DIANA Initiative of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).

  • DIANADefence Innovation Accelerator for the North Atlantic.
  • It aims to address future challenges in defence and security by harnessing technological solutions.
  • Initiative of - North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
  • Aim - It seeks to accelerate the development and deployment of innovative solutions with applications in both civil and defence sectors.
  • DIANA has a network of more than 200 affiliated accelerator sites and test centres.
  • All NATO nations are members of DIANA.
  • The DIANA Board of Directors is responsible for governance and comprises representatives from every Allied country.
  • DIANA accelerator programme – Aimed at helping companies and countries develop deep technologies and innovations applicable to both commercial and defence sectors.

15. Consider the following pairs.

           Portal                                       Launched by

  1. SheRNI Portal          –          University Grants Commission (UGC)
  2. PM-SURAJ Portal   –          Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

SheRNI Portal

Recently the SheRNI Portal was launched by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to connect, support women scientists and faculty members across India.

  • SheRNI - She Research Network in India.
  • Aim - To create a national-level expert platform for women faculty members and facilitate the exchange of expertise, insights and experiences across diverse fields.
  • Launched by - The Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) of the University Grants Commission (UGC).

PM-SURAJ Portal

  • PM-SURAJ – Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan evam Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan.
  • Aim - To offer credit support to the marginalized segments of society.
  • Launched by - The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
  • It provides financial assistance directly to beneficiaries, eliminating middlemen and commissions.
  • The portal will help empower people deprived of opportunities.
  • It will provide information about various government schemes at one place.

16. Consider the following statements with respect to Status of Leopards in India Report

  1. It is the outcome of the 5th cycle of leopard population estimation carried out by the National Tiger Conservation Authority and Wildlife Institute of India.
  2. According to the report, the number of leopards declined rapidly when compared to 2018 levels.
  3. Madhya Pradesh is having the largest leopard population followed by Maharashtra and Karnataka.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Status of Leopards in India Report

Recently, the 5th cycle of leopard population estimation (2022) was carried out and ‘the Status of Leopards in India’ report was released.

  • Aim – To reveal crucial insights into leopard distribution and conservation challenges.
  • Conducted by – National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in collaboration with State Forest Departments.
  • It is under quadrennialMonitoring of Tiger, Co-predators, prey and their habitat” exercise in tiger range States.
  • Coverage – 20 States of India, and focussed on about 70% of the animals’ expected habitat, which are India’s tiger reserves and protected forest areas.
    • Forested habitats within 18 tiger states, covering 4 major tiger conservation landscapes.
    • Non-forested habitats, arid, and high Himalayas, total of about 30% area were not sampled for leopard.
  • Scientific methodologies – A meticulous process combining camera trapping, habitat analysis, and population modelling.

Key Findings of the report

  • 8% rise in numbers from 2018 to 2022 with 13,874 individuals (Range - 12,616 to 15,132).
  • A 1.08% per annum growth in sample area from 2018.
  • The largest growth rate of 1.5%, in Central India & Eastern Ghats.
  • 3.4% decline per annum in Shivalik hills and Gangetic plains.
  • Only 4 States reported over a 1,000 animals, where Madhya Pradesh houses the largest followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • Tiger Reserves or sites with highest leopard population
    • Nagarajunasagar Srisailam (Andhra Pradesh), followed by Panna (Madhya Pradesh), and Satpura (Madhya Pradesh).
  • Threats – Habitat loss, human-wildlife conflict, and poaching.
  • Human-wildlife conflict likely reason for decline in the big cat population by 22% in Uttarakhand.
  • Significance – The findings underscore the critical role of Protected Areas in conserving leopard populations.

Indian Leopard

  • Scientific Name – Panthera pardus fusca
  • Conservation Status
    • IUCN - Near Threatened
    • CITES - Appendix I
    • WPA, 1972 - Schedule I

17. Dogleg manoeuvre, sometimes seen in the news recently, is associated with?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Kulasekarapattinam Spaceport

The Rohini Sounding Rocket was launched from the mobile launch pad to mark the commencement of physical work on the Kulasekarapattinam spaceport.

  • Geographical location – Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu.
  • Kulasekaranpattinam is a town better known for its Dussehra celebrations at Sri Mutharamman Temple.
  • Role – It is ISRO’s 2nd satellite launch facility, would be completed within 2 years to launch SSLVs in order.
  • It would have the capacity to launch 24 satellites per year.
  • Need – The rockets launched from ISRO’s Sriharikota facility in Andhra Pradesh 1st heads east, and then turn south to avoid the Sri Lanka’s airspace, costing more fuel and reduce payload’s capacity.
  •  Geographical advantages – It can head straight in the southern direction without a dogleg manoeuvre and closer to equator than Sriharikota thereby reducing time and fuel wastage.
  • Economic significance – It is relatively closer to the ISRO Propulsion Research Complex located in Mahendragiri, in Tirunelveli district, Tamil Nadu.
  • It makes it easier to transport the rocket components safely in shorter time, thus reducing the costs involved.
  • Safety considerations – Proximity to the eastern coastline of India are safer, as any failure of launches allow the debris to fall harmlessly in Bay of Bengal or Indian Ocean.

18. Consider the following pairs.

           GI Products                                                Origin

  1. Risa Textile                                      -           Tripura
  2. Ambaji White Marble                       -           Gujarat         
  3. Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun                 -           Madhya Pradesh     
  4. Narasapur crochet lace products    -            Andhra Pradesh

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi - Jewellery

  • It is a silver filigree, a form of metalwork in jewellery.
  • Geography – Odisha.
  • Qualities – Fine craftsmanship and luxurious design.
  • Origin – As early as 3500 BCE in Mesopotamia, it was incorporated and even today it is done as Telkari work.
  • In India – It might have reached Cuttack from Persia through Indonesia some 500 years ago by sea trade, also evidences shows the exchange of jewellery and gems between Kalinga and Indonesia.

The Banglar muslin – Handloom Craft

  • Geography – Bengal.
  • Qualities – This finest muslin is made of cotton, which are spun to create threads that maintained tensile strength higher than any other cotton products.

Narasapur crochet lace products

  • Geography – Narsapur in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Qualities – Intricate craftsmanship, unique designs and good quality crochet craft.
  • In India – It was brought by missionaries to Narsapur.

Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun – Garlic variety

  • Geography – It is named after Riyawan village in Ratlam district of Madhya Pradesh

Ambaji White Marble

  • Geography – Gujarat.
  • It is formed when limestone is re-crystallised under the earth’s crust due to intense pressure and heat.
  • Qualities – Pure white Colour with light grey veins.

Majuli mask

  • Geography – Assam
  • They are made in different variety and sizes as they are mainly divided into different categories
  • Mukha bhaona face mask – It covers the face.
  • Lotokoi hanging mask – It is bigger in size extends to the chest.
  • Cho Mukha huge mask – It is a head and body mask.

Majuli Manuscript Paintings

  • Geography – Assam.
  • It has illustrated numerous stories and chapters taken from the great Hindu epics Ramayana, Mahabharata and above all subjects from the Bhagavata Purana.

Risa Textile

  • Geography – Tripura
  • It is common in almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura.
  • However, each community has its own design.

Hyderabad Lac Bangles and Kutch rogan craft are the other products that got GI tag recently

19. Women, Business and the Law Report 2024 was published recently by?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Women, Business and the Law Report 2024

The 10th edition of the women, business and the law report was published recently.

  • An annual studies measuring the laws that affect women’s economic opportunity.
  • Published by – World bank
  • Coverage – 190 economies.
  • For the 1st time – It analysed the impact of childcare & safety policies on women’s participation in the labour market.
  • It presents a new approach to measure the implementation gap between laws (de jure) and how they function in practice (de facto).
  • 10 indicators – Safety, Mobility, Workplace, Pay, Marriage, Parenthood, Childcare, Entrepreneurship, Assets, and Pension.

Key Findings of the Report

  • Workplace – No country in the world affords women the same opportunities as men in the workforce.
  • Global gender gap – It was far wider than previously thought and closing this could raise global GDP by more than 20%.
  • Pay – Globally, women earned just 77 cents of each dollar earned by a man.
  • Pension – In 81 countries, a woman’s pension benefits do not account for periods of work absences related to childcare.
  • Parenthood – Less than 50% the countries had financial support or tax relief for parents of young children.
  • Safety – 151 countries had laws against sexual harassment in the workplace but only 40 countries had laws that covered abuse in public areas or on public transport.
  • Childcare – Addressing the childcare gap would immediately lead to a 1% increase in women’s participation in the labour force.
  • Legal gap – Countries on average, established less than 40% of the systems needed for full implementation.
  • Women on average enjoyed just 64% of the legal protections men do, down from the previous estimate of 77%.

20. Consider the following statements with respect to Asiatic Lions

  1. The Asiatic lion is a subspecies of lion, slightly smaller than African lions.
  2. At present, Gir National Park, Gujarat is the only abode of the Asiatic lion.
  3. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has recently re-categorized the Asiatic lion’s conservation status as vulnerable from endangered.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Asiatic Lions

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) recently recategorized the Asiatic lion status as vulnerable from endangered indicating a positive shift in its conservation status.

Nomenclature change

  • Due to genetic similarity between Central African, West African and Asiatic Lions, IUCN has clubbed all three under Panthera leo leo.
  • Earlier, the Asiatic lions were classified as Panthera leo persica.

Asiatic Lions

  • About - The Asiatic lion is a subspecies of lion, slightly smaller than African lions.
  • They are also known as Persian lions or Indian lions.
  • Scientific Name - Panthera leo leo.
  • Family – Felidae.
  • Distribution - They used to range from Turkey, across Asia, to eastern India.
  • Habitat - At present Gir National Park, Gujarat is the only abode of the Asiatic lion.
  • They are one of the 5 big cats found in India and are better known as ‘the king of beasts’.

Conservation Status

IUCN

Vulnerable

WPA

Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972

CITES

Appendix I

Project Lion

  • The Project Lion envisages landscape ecology-based conservation of the Asiatic Lion in Gujarat by integrating conservation and eco-development.
  • The Project is being implemented in the Gir landscape in Gujarat which is the last home of the Asiatic lion.
  • Implementation - The State Government of Gujarat and other stakeholders like Central Zoo Authority.
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